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ESAT Biology Practice Questions by Topic

These are the Biology questions we publish for practice, each filed under the topic and the skill it tests, with a worked solution that names the mistake behind every wrong option. 10 questions are worked on this page; 20 more sit in the four sample papers and are linked under the same skills. Every module is on ESAT practice by topic.

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B3 Cell division and reproduction

B3.1 Split that cycle into its two parts: interphase, when the cell grows and its DNA is replicated, and mitosis, a single division that gives two daughter cells, each a genetic match for the other and for the parent cell.

Question 1

A culture of identical pea shoot tip cells is grown in conditions where every cell divides and no cells die. Over a period of 12 hours the number of cells rises from 12000 to 48000. Partway through this period a sample of 1800 cells is fixed and stained: 90 cells are in prophase, 36 in metaphase, 24 in anaphase and 30 in telophase, and every remaining cell is in interphase. Assume that the proportion of cells seen in a stage equals the proportion of the cell cycle that the stage occupies. For how many minutes is a cell in interphase during one cell cycle?

  • A. 18
  • B. 36
  • C. 216
  • D. 324
  • E. 648

Difficulty: ★★★★☆ Target Time: 90 s Tests: Mitosis

Key Idea (💡): In a population where every cell divides and none die, the number of cells doubles once per cell cycle, so the length of one cycle is the total growth time divided by the number of doublings, and the number of doublings is the exponent when the fold increase is written as a power of two. Separately, a fixed sample is a snapshot of cells caught at random points in that cycle, so the fraction of cells showing a stage equals the fraction of the cycle length that the stage occupies. Multiplying the stage fraction by the cycle length is what turns a cell count into a duration.

Shortcut rehearsed: Doublings give the cycle length, stage counts give the share of it

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B3.1 - Mitosis and the cell cycle: a. Know and understand that the mitotic cell cycle includes interphase (involving cell...

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: D. 324

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Never count interphase cells. Add the four mitotic counts, 90+36+24+30=180, subtract from 1800 once, and pair that with the cycle length 360 minutes that 48000/12000=4=22 hands you in a single step.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Find the number of doublings

48000÷12000=4, and 4=22, so the population has doubled 2 times in 12 hours.

2. Convert doublings into one cycle length

Every cell divides once per doubling, so one cell cycle takes 12÷2=6 hours, which is 360 minutes.

3. Find the fraction of cells in interphase

The mitotic cells number 90+36+24+30=180, so the interphase cells number 1800−180=1620, a fraction 16201800 of the sample.

4. Convert the fraction into a time

Interphase lasts 16201800×360=324 minutes.

Sanity check: mitosis then occupies the remaining 36 minutes, and 324+36=360 minutes, the full cycle. Interphase taking the great majority of the cycle is exactly what is expected.

The key is 324.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. 18 · Wrong stage timed
    Times prophase alone instead of the whole of interphase: 90/1800 of the sample is in prophase, and that fraction of the 360 minute cycle is 18 minutes. Prophase is one stage inside mitosis, not the long interval between divisions that the question asks about.
  • B. 36 · Complement of the fraction
    Adds the four mitotic counts, 90+36+24+30=180, and uses them as the fraction: 1801800×360=36 minutes. That is the time spent in mitosis, the complement of what was asked, and the two together make the 360 minute cycle.
  • C. 216 · Miscounted doublings
    Reads the 4-fold rise as 3 rounds of division rather than 2, giving a cycle of 60×12÷3=240 minutes, then 16201800×240=216 minutes. The fold increase is 22, not 23.
  • E. 648 · Cycle length not derived
    Never converts the observation period into one cycle and applies the interphase fraction to all 12 hours: 16201800×720=648 minutes. That is longer than the cycle itself, which lasts only 360 minutes.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Using the 12 hour observation period as the cell cycle length. Those 12 hours cover 2 successive divisions, so they are 2 cell cycles rather than one, and treating them as one inflates every stage duration by a factor of 2: interphase comes out as 648 minutes instead of 324.

Takeaway (📌):
A mitotic index converts counts into times only once you know the cycle length, and in a dividing population the cycle length is the growth time divided by the number of doublings, which you read off the fold increase as a power of two.

The same skill in the sample papers: Paper 1, question 1 · Paper 2, question 1 · Paper 3, question 1 · Paper 4, question 1.

B4 Genetics

B4.3 Use and read genetic diagrams for a monohybrid cross, one that follows a single gene, and interpret the genetic data such a cross gives.

Question 2

In a species of rabbit a single gene controls coat colour, and the allele for black fur (B) is completely dominant over the allele for white fur (b). A breeder crosses two heterozygous black rabbits and obtains a large litter. One rabbit is then picked at random from the black offspring of that litter, and it is crossed with a white rabbit. Assuming both crosses give offspring in the expected Mendelian proportions, what is the probability that the first offspring of this second cross has white fur?

  • A. 18
  • B. 16
  • C. 14
  • D. 13
  • E. 12

Difficulty: ★★★★☆ Target Time: 80 s Tests: Inheritance

Key Idea (💡): A parent identified only by its phenotype has a genotype that must be handled as a probability distribution conditioned on that phenotype. Two heterozygotes give 1BB:2Bb:1bb, but selecting an offspring that shows the dominant phenotype removes the bb quarter, leaving BB with probability 13 and Bb with probability 23. The outcome of a second cross is then the sum of the branches, each weighted by its probability.

Shortcut rehearsed: A black offspring is BB once in three and Bb twice in three

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B4.3 - Monohybrid crosses: a. Use and interpret genetic data and diagrams involving monohybrid (single gene) crosses

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: D. 13

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Only the heterozygous branch can produce white, so the whole question collapses to P(Bb) halved. Write down 23, halve it, and stop.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Work out the first cross

Bb×Bb gives 1BB:2Bb:1bb. As B is completely dominant, BB and Bb are black and bb is white.

2. Condition on the chosen rabbit being black

The rabbit was drawn from the black offspring only, so the bb quarter is excluded. Of the three equally likely genotypes that remain, one is BB and two are Bb, so P(BB)=13 and P(Bb)=23.

3. Send each branch through the second cross

The white partner is bb and can donate only b. BB×bb gives all Bb, so P(white)=0. Bb×bb gives 1Bb:1bb, so P(white)=12.

4. Combine

P(white)=13×0+23×12=13.

Sanity check: the answer must be below 12, because the chosen parent might be BB and give no white offspring at all, and above 14, because it is more likely heterozygous than not.

Matches Option D.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. 18 · Wrong second parent
    Takes P(Bb)=12 and then crosses the black rabbit with another heterozygote instead of with the white rabbit, so the second step contributes 14 rather than 12: 12×14=18.
  • B. 16 · Inverted conditional
    Inverts the conditional probabilities and uses 13 for the heterozygote, which is actually P(BB): 13×12=16.
  • C. 14 · Failure to condition
    Reads P(Bb) straight off the unconditioned 1:2:1 ratio as 12, ignoring that the bb quarter cannot be the black rabbit: 12×12=14.
  • E. 12 · Assumed genotype
    Assumes any black offspring of two heterozygotes must itself be heterozygous, so the cross is simply Bb×bb and the answer is the raw 12.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Using P(Bb)=12 for the chosen parent, because Bb is half of the whole 1:2:1 ratio, and forgetting that the bb quarter was already ruled out by the statement that the rabbit is black. That gives 12×12=14 instead of 13.

Takeaway (📌):
An offspring of two heterozygotes known only to show the dominant phenotype is two thirds heterozygous and one third homozygous dominant, not one half. Condition on the phenotype first, then weight the second cross by those two fractions.

B5 DNA and protein synthesis

B5.3 Know that a gene is read three bases at a time, and each triplet codes for one amino acid.

Question 3

An agricultural laboratory is studying an enzyme from germinating barley. The active enzyme is one functional protein holding a single chain coded by gene M alongside a single chain coded by gene N. Sequencing shows that the coding stretch of gene N is 246 nucleotides shorter than the coding stretch of gene M, while separate work on the purified protein counts 265 amino acids in the chain that gene M codes for. Assume that the nucleotides of a coding stretch are read as consecutive triplets, that each triplet specifies one amino acid of the chain that stretch codes for, that no triplet in either stretch goes unread, and that neither chain is trimmed once it has been assembled. How many nucleotides do the two coding stretches contain between them?

  • A. 795
  • B. 1344
  • C. 284
  • D. 549
  • E. 448

Difficulty: ★★★☆☆ Target Time: 90 s Tests: DNA and protein synthesis

Key Idea (💡): Along a coding stretch the nucleotides are read as consecutive triplets and each triplet specifies one amino acid of the chain that stretch codes for. That fixes a three to one exchange rate between nucleotides and amino acids, usable in both directions: multiply by three to turn a chain length into a coding length, divide by three to go back. A functional protein can hold chains coded by more than one gene, so a total for the protein means totalling every coding stretch that contributes to it.

Shortcut rehearsed: Work in triplets throughout and convert back once at the end

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B5.3 - Protein synthesis: a. Know and understand that protein synthesis involves producing chains of amino acids called...

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: B. 1344

Fastest Approach (🚀):
246 divides by three, so stay in triplets throughout. Gene M is 265 triplets, gene N is 246÷3=82 triplets fewer, so 183, and the two come to 265+183=448 triplets. One multiplication at the end, 448×3=1344, gives the total.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Turn the chain coded by gene M into a length of DNA

Each amino acid in a chain is specified by one triplet, and a triplet is three nucleotides. The chain coded by gene M holds 265 amino acids, so the coding stretch of gene M is 265×3=795 nucleotides.

2. Take the stated difference off, in nucleotides

The difference of 246 is given as a count of nucleotides, so it comes off the 795 rather than off the 265:
795−246=549.
Gene N's stretch is 549 nucleotides, which is 549÷3=183 triplets, so the chain it codes for is 183 amino acids long.

3. Add the two coding stretches

795+549=1344.
Between them the two stretches contain 1344 nucleotides.

Check: the two chains hold 265+183=448 amino acids, and 448×3=1344, the same figure, as it has to be when every amino acid is specified by three nucleotides.

Matches Option B.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. 795 · Stopped at one gene
    265×3=795 is the coding stretch of gene M on its own. Gene N's stretch, 795−246=549, still has to be added to answer what the two contain between them.
  • C. 284 · Triplet code never applied
    Treating the 265 amino acids as 265 nucleotides makes gene N's stretch 265−246=19, and 265+19=284. Each amino acid needs three nucleotides, so gene M's stretch is 795, not 265.
  • D. 549 · Stopped at the shorter gene
    795−246=549 is gene N's coding stretch by itself. The question asks for the two stretches together, so gene M's 795 must be added to it.
  • E. 448 · Amino acids reported, not nucleotides
    549÷3=183 amino acids in the chain from gene N, and 265+183=448 amino acids in the whole protein. That is a count of amino acids; the question asks for nucleotides, which is three times as many.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Subtracting before converting. The 246 counts nucleotides and the 265 counts amino acids, so 265−246=19 subtracts one kind of thing from another and means nothing. Converting first, to 795 nucleotides, is what makes the subtraction legitimate.

Takeaway (📌):
Nucleotides and amino acids stand in a fixed three to one ratio along a coding stretch, so convert every quantity into the same one of the two units before you add or subtract anything.

B5.4 Know that a mutation is a change in the order of nucleotides along the DNA.

Question 4

A bacterial gene is 1200 nucleotides long in the wild-type strain. Two strains grown from mutagen-treated cells are sequenced. Strain P's copy of the gene is also 1200 nucleotides long and matches the wild type at every position except position 640, where a different base is present. Strain Q's copy is 1199 nucleotides long: it matches the wild type at positions 1 to 640, and from there on each of its nucleotides matches the wild-type nucleotide one place further along the gene. Assume no other change occurred in either strain. Which statement describes both changes correctly?

  • A. In P one nucleotide has been added; in Q one nucleotide has been lost.
  • B. In P one nucleotide has been lost; in Q one nucleotide has been added.
  • C. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q one nucleotide has been added.
  • D. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q one nucleotide has been lost.
  • E. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q every nucleotide beyond position 640 has been replaced.
  • F. In P the sequence is unchanged; in Q one nucleotide has been lost.
  • G. In P one nucleotide has been added; in Q every nucleotide beyond position 640 has been replaced.
  • H. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q the sequence is unchanged.

Difficulty: ★★★☆☆ Target Time: 90 s Tests: DNA and protein synthesis

Key Idea (💡): A mutation is a change in the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA, so a mutant gene is identified by setting its sequence against the original. Two features settle what has happened: how many nucleotides the gene now holds, and the position at which the two sequences stop agreeing. Replacing one nucleotide with another alters a single position and leaves the total unchanged, while losing one shortens the gene by a nucleotide and makes every nucleotide after the gap line up one place earlier than it did.

Shortcut rehearsed: Compare the two lengths before comparing the two sequences

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B5.4 - Gene mutations: a. Understand that a mutation changes the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: D. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q one nucleotide has been lost.

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Read the two lengths before either sequence. With a single change in each strain, 1200 against 1200 has to be a replacement and 1199 against 1200 has to be a loss, and that fixes both halves of the answer at once.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Compare each length with the wild type's 1200 nucleotides.


A mutation is a change to the sequence of nucleotides, so the length of that sequence is the first thing to compare. Strain P's gene is 1200 nucleotides, exactly the wild-type length, so no nucleotide has been gained or lost. Strain Q's gene is 1199 nucleotides, one fewer, so exactly one nucleotide has been lost.

2. Read the disagreement in strain P.


P matches the wild type at every position but 640, where a different base sits. With the length unchanged, that single disagreement is one nucleotide replaced by a different one, the rest of the sequence being untouched.

3. Read the shift in strain Q.


Q agrees with the wild type as far as position 640. Beyond that, Q's nucleotide at any position is the wild-type nucleotide one place further along, so the wild type's nucleotide at position 641 has no counterpart in Q and each later nucleotide has moved one place forward: 1199−640=559 of them, filling positions 641 to 1199 of Q. That is one nucleotide lost at position 641. It cannot be a run of replacements, because replacing nucleotides leaves the number of them unchanged.

Sanity check: taking one nucleotide out of 1200 leaves 1199, which is the length measured in Q.

Matches Option D.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. In P one nucleotide has been added; in Q one nucleotide has been lost. · A replaced base read as an added one
    Q is read correctly, but an added nucleotide would leave P's gene 1200+1=1201 nucleotides long. P is 1200, the wild-type length, so nothing has been added to it and the base at position 640 has been swapped for another.
  • B. In P one nucleotide has been lost; in Q one nucleotide has been added. · Both length comparisons reversed
    This has P losing a nucleotide although its length is unchanged at 1200, and Q gaining one although its length has fallen from 1200 to 1199. A gain in Q would have made it 1201 nucleotides long.
  • C. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q one nucleotide has been added. · Direction of Q's length change reversed
    P is read correctly. Q's 1199 nucleotides are one fewer than 1200, not one more, so a nucleotide has gone rather than arrived. The phrase "one place further along" means that each of the wild type's later nucleotides now sits one place earlier, closing the gap left behind.
  • E. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q every nucleotide beyond position 640 has been replaced. · A shift mistaken for wholesale replacement
    It is true that Q's bases from position 641 on mostly fail to match the wild-type bases at the same positions, which is what tempts this answer, but replacements, however many of them, leave the number of nucleotides untouched, so Q would still be 1200 nucleotides long. Only a loss accounts for the measured 1199.
  • F. In P the sequence is unchanged; in Q one nucleotide has been lost. · A mutation assumed to require a change of length
    Q is read correctly. A different base at position 640 is itself a change to the sequence of nucleotides, which is what a mutation is: the sequence is defined by which nucleotide sits at each position, not only by how many there are.
  • G. In P one nucleotide has been added; in Q every nucleotide beyond position 640 has been replaced. · Both lengths ignored
    This combines an addition in P, which would give 1201 nucleotides, with a run of replacements in Q, which would leave Q at 1200. The lengths given in the question, 1200 and 1199, rule out both halves.
  • H. In P one nucleotide has been replaced by a different one; in Q the sequence is unchanged. · Comparison stopped at the first agreement
    P is read correctly. Q's first 640 nucleotides do match the wild type's, but the comparison has to run to the end of the gene: Q is one nucleotide shorter and its nucleotides from 641 on are displaced, so its sequence has changed.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Comparing the two sequences position by position and counting every position that fails to match. From position 641 on, none of Q's nucleotides sits opposite the wild-type nucleotide it matches, which looks like hundreds of separate changes. It is one nucleotide missing and the rest of the sequence closing up behind it, which is why the gene is one nucleotide shorter and not the same length.

Takeaway (📌):
Count the nucleotides before you read them. The same length with one position different is a replacement; one nucleotide shorter, with everything past the break shifted a place forward, is a loss.

B9 Human physiology

B9.1 Explain what respiration is: the process going on inside every living cell, and what it achieves for the cell.

Question 5

A fermentation vessel holds a glucose solution and a suspension of wine yeast at a constant temperature. Air is supplied for the first part of the run and is then cut off with the vessel sealed, so once the dissolved oxygen has been used up the yeast goes on respiring anaerobically. Aerobic respiration follows C6H12O6+6O2→6CO2+6H2O and anaerobic respiration in yeast follows C6H12O6→2C2H5OH+2CO2. Over the whole run the yeast uses 20 mol of glucose and 88 mol of carbon dioxide is collected. Assume that no glucose is used for growth and that all of the carbon dioxide produced is collected. How many moles of ethanol are in the vessel at the end of the run?

  • A. 16
  • B. 8
  • C. 12
  • D. 72
  • E. 20

Difficulty: ★★★☆☆ Target Time: 70 s Tests: Respiration

Key Idea (💡): Both routes consume glucose and both release carbon dioxide, but not in the same ratio: complete aerobic oxidation gives six moles of carbon dioxide per mole of glucose, while fermentation in yeast gives two, alongside two moles of ethanol. When one culture uses both routes in a single run, the carbon dioxide collected is a weighted sum of the two contributions, so the glucose total and the carbon dioxide total together fix how much glucose went down each route. The ethanol then follows from the fermentation equation alone.

Shortcut rehearsed: Start from the all-fermented case and share out the shortfall

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B9.1 - Respiration: a. Know and understand the process of cellular respiration in living cells

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: A. 16

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Work from the all-fermented case. Fermenting the whole 20 mol would give only 2×20=40 mol of carbon dioxide, a shortfall of 48 mol against the 88 mol collected, and each mole switched to the aerobic route closes 4 mol of that gap. So 12 mol went aerobic, 8 mol fermented, and doubling the fermented figure gives 16 mol of ethanol.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Split the glucose between the two routes

Let a be the moles of glucose respired aerobically and b the moles fermented. Every mole of glucose took one route or the other, so

a+b=20

2. Balance the carbon dioxide

The aerobic equation releases 6 moles of carbon dioxide per mole of glucose and the fermentation equation releases 2, so

6a+2b=88

3. Solve the pair

Substituting b=20−a gives 6a+2(20−a)=88, so 4a=88−40=48, giving a=12 and b=20−12=8.

4. Turn the fermented glucose into ethanol

Fermentation gives two moles of ethanol per mole of glucose:

2×8=16 mol

Sanity check: the aerobic route released 6×12=72 mol of carbon dioxide and the fermentation route 2×8=16 mol, which together give the 88 mol stated. The oxygen taken up was 6×12=72 mol.

The key is 16 mol.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • B. 8 · Coefficient dropped
    Solves the split correctly to 8 mol of glucose fermented, then reports that figure as the ethanol and drops the 2 in C6H12O6→2C2H5OH+2CO2. Each mole of glucose fermented gives two moles of ethanol, so the ethanol is 2×8=16 mol.
  • C. 12 · Wrong route reported
    Quotes the glucose that went down the aerobic route, 12 mol. That route makes carbon dioxide and water and no ethanol at all, so it cannot be the answer: the ethanol comes from the 8 mol that fermented, at two moles of ethanol for each.
  • D. 72 · Oxygen quoted instead of ethanol
    Splits the glucose correctly and then answers with the wrong quantity. The aerobic equation takes six moles of oxygen per mole of glucose, so the oxygen used is 6×12=72 mol. The question asks for ethanol, which comes only from the 8 mol that fermented.
  • E. 20 · Even split assumed
    Assumes the glucose divided evenly between the two routes, 10 mol each, giving 2×10=20 mol of ethanol. An even split would have released 6×10+2×10=80 mol of carbon dioxide, not the 88 mol collected, so the split has to be solved for rather than guessed.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Stopping one step early. The pair of balances gives the glucose fermented, 8 mol, and that figure looks like an answer, but the question asks for ethanol and the fermentation equation puts two moles of it into the vessel for every mole of glucose used: 2×8=16 mol.

Takeaway (📌):
When two pathways draw on the same substrate and make the same product in different ratios, write one balance for the substrate and one for the product, then solve the pair. The quantity actually asked for is usually one stoichiometric step beyond the split, so do not stop at the moles of glucose you have just found.

The same skill in the sample papers: Paper 1, question 2 · Paper 1, question 4 · Paper 2, question 4 · Paper 3, question 4 · Paper 4, question 4.

B9.1 Describe anaerobic respiration in animal cells, the process a cell uses when it has too little oxygen, and be able to write out its word equation.

Question 6

A physiologist studies a canoe sprinter on a kayak ergometer, sampling the blood that enters and leaves the muscles being worked. While the effort lasts, the working muscles of one leg respire glucose at a steady total rate of 28mmol per minute, and the store of glucose in them is large enough that it never runs out. Blood delivers oxygen to those muscles at 24mmol per minute, and all of it is used in aerobic respiration: C6H12O6+6O2→6CO2+6H2O. The glucose that the oxygen supply cannot cover is respired anaerobically instead: C6H12O6→2C3H6O3. Assume that glucose is the only fuel used, that both rates stay constant, that the lactate formed is not broken down while the effort lasts, and that all the carbon dioxide produced in these muscles is carried away in the blood and measured. How much carbon dioxide, in mmol, do these muscles produce during 3 minutes of exercise?

  • A. 24
  • B. 84
  • C. 216
  • D. 504
  • E. 72

Difficulty: ★★★☆☆ Target Time: 55 s Tests: Human physiology

Key Idea (💡): Aerobic and anaerobic respiration both consume glucose, but they are different reactions with different products, and the balanced equations are what settle how much of each product appears. Aerobic respiration takes six moles of oxygen for every mole of glucose and returns six moles of carbon dioxide, so a fixed rate of oxygen delivery puts a ceiling on how much glucose can travel that route however much glucose is available. Anaerobic respiration in muscle converts glucose to lactate and to nothing else: it needs no oxygen and, unlike alcoholic fermentation in yeast, releases no carbon dioxide whatever. When both routes run together the carbon dioxide comes from the aerobic share alone, and the size of that share is fixed by the oxygen supply rather than by the demand for fuel.

Shortcut rehearsed: Aerobic carbon dioxide equals the oxygen used, mole for mole

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B9.1 - Respiration: a. Know and understand the process of cellular respiration in living cells

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: E. 72

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Do not split the glucose at all. The aerobic equation uses six oxygen and makes six carbon dioxide, so mole for mole the gas out equals the oxygen in, and the whole question is 24×3=72mmol. Dividing by 6 and multiplying by 6 again is the step to skip.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Let the oxygen decide how much glucose takes the aerobic route

The aerobic equation consumes 6 moles of oxygen for each mole of glucose, so 24mmol of oxygen a minute can serve 24÷6=4mmol of glucose a minute. The muscles are using 28mmol a minute in total, so the remaining 28−4=24mmol a minute has to be respired anaerobically.

2. Take the carbon dioxide from the aerobic route

The same equation releases 6 moles of carbon dioxide per mole of glucose, so the aerobic route gives 6×4=24mmol a minute. Over 3 minutes that is 24×3=72mmol.

3. Check what the anaerobic route adds

Read the second equation: glucose becomes lactate, and there is no carbon dioxide anywhere on its right-hand side. The 24mmol of glucose fermented each minute therefore adds nothing at all to the gas collected, and the total stands at 72mmol.

Sanity check on the carbon: the 4mmol of glucose oxidised each minute carries 24mmol of carbon atoms, and all of it leaves as 24mmol of carbon dioxide. The 24mmol fermented carries 144mmol of carbon, and every atom of it stays behind in the 48mmol of lactate made each minute, which is why the muscle accumulates lactate rather than gas.

The key is 72mmol.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. 24 · Rate reported as a total
    This is the carbon dioxide released in one minute, 6×4=24mmol, reported without multiplying by the 3 minutes the question asks about. It is also the oxygen figure printed in the stem, which makes it doubly tempting to write down and stop.
  • B. 84 · Coefficient of six dropped
    This takes one mole of carbon dioxide per mole of glucose and applies it to all the fuel: 28×3=84mmol. The aerobic equation releases six per glucose, not one, and the fermented share releases none, so both halves of the reasoning are wrong at once.
  • C. 216 · Alcoholic fermentation used for muscle
    This adds two moles of carbon dioxide for every mole of glucose fermented, 72+2×24×3=216mmol, which is the yield of alcoholic fermentation in yeast. The equation printed for these muscles makes lactate and nothing else, so its carbon never leaves as gas.
  • D. 504 · Oxygen limit ignored
    This sends the whole 28mmol a minute down the aerobic route: 28×6×3=504mmol. Only 24mmol of oxygen arrives each minute, which is enough for 4mmol of glucose, so 24mmol a minute cannot take that route however much glucose the muscle holds.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Assuming that respiration of any kind releases carbon dioxide, so the 24mmol of glucose fermented each minute swells the total. In muscle the anaerobic equation stops at lactate and the carbon stays locked in it; only the glucose that meets oxygen sends its carbon out as gas, which is why the answer is set by the oxygen supply of 24mmol a minute and not by the 28mmol of fuel used.

Takeaway (📌):
When two routes share one fuel, let the scarce reagent size the first route, then read the second route's equation for what it does and does not make. Oxygen delivery fixes the aerobic share, and lactate fermentation contributes no carbon dioxide at all.

The same skill in the sample papers: Paper 1, question 5 · Paper 2, question 2 · Paper 2, question 5 · Paper 3, question 2 · Paper 3, question 5 · Paper 4, question 2 · Paper 4, question 5.

B9.2 State that the brain and spinal cord make up the central nervous system, and describe how sensory, relay and motor neurones are built and what they do, along with synapses and the working of a reflex arc.

Question 7

A recording from a motor neurone supplying the diaphragm of an adult volunteer breathing quietly shows one burst of impulses arriving every 6 s, and each burst carries 15 impulses. Every whole burst produces one contraction of the diaphragm, and that contraction draws 600 cm3 of air into the lungs. Breathing stays quiet and regular. Calculate the volume of air drawn into the lungs each minute, in dm3.

  • A. 6
  • B. 6000
  • C. 9
  • D. 0.6
  • E. 90

Difficulty: ★★☆☆☆ Target Time: 50 s Tests: Human physiology

Key Idea (💡): Two separate figures are given about the same neurone and only one of them fixes the rate. How often a burst arrives fixes how many contractions the diaphragm makes in a minute, because one whole burst drives one contraction; how many impulses that burst contains does not change the count. So the minute volume is the volume drawn in by one contraction, converted into cubic decimetres, multiplied by the number of bursts a minute holds.

Shortcut rehearsed: Bursts per minute set the rate, impulses per burst do not

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B9.2 - Organ systems: a. Nervous system: i. Know and understand that the central nervous system comprises the brain and spinal...

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: A. 6

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Do the conversion first, since 600÷1000=0.6 is the easier of the two steps, then multiply by the 10 inspirations that 60÷6 gives. The impulse count 15 plays no part in the answer at all.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Turn the burst interval into a breathing rate

One whole burst produces one contraction of the diaphragm, so one burst is one inspiration however many impulses the burst contains. A burst every 6 s gives

606=10 inspirations per minute.

The 15 impulses describe the traffic along the motor neurone that drives a single contraction; they are not a count of breaths.

2. Put the volume into the units of the answer

600 cm3=6001000=0.6 dm3 drawn in per inspiration.

3. Combine volume per breath with breaths per minute

0.6×10=6, so 6 dm3 of air is drawn in each minute.

Sanity check: a whole minute holds 10 inspirations, so the answer must be larger than the 0.6 dm3 that one inspiration draws in, and it is. Leaving the volume in cm3 would give 6000, a thousand times too large.

The key is 6.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • B. 6000 · Volume conversion omitted
    Multiplies the tidal volume by the breathing rate and labels the result in cubic decimetres: 600×10=6000. The tidal volume is measured in cm3 and 1000 cm3=1 dm3, so it has to be divided by 1000 before the multiplication, which makes this option exactly 1000 times the true figure.
  • C. 9 · Impulses counted as breaths
    Takes the 15 impulses in a burst as 15 inspirations a minute: 0.6×15=9. Every impulse in one burst serves the same single contraction, so a burst counts once however many impulses it carries, and the minute holds 10 bursts.
  • D. 0.6 · Volume per breath reported as volume per minute
    Converts the tidal volume and stops there: 600÷1000=0.6. That is the volume drawn in by one contraction of the diaphragm, and it still has to be multiplied by the 10 inspirations a minute contains.
  • E. 90 · Each impulse counted as a contraction
    Gets the burst rate right but gives every impulse its own contraction: 15×10=150 contractions a minute, then 0.6×150=90. One whole burst, all 15 impulses of it, produces a single contraction.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Leaving the tidal volume in cubic centimetres. 600 cm3 is 0.6 dm3, because 1 dm3=1000 cm3, and multiplying 600 by the 10 inspirations a minute holds gives 6000, a thousand times the true figure.

Takeaway (📌):
Turn an interval into a per-minute rate before anything else, and convert the volume into the units the answer asks for at the same time. Any per-minute total is then the amount moved by one event multiplied by the number of events in a minute, and a count of impulses inside one event is not a count of events.

The same skill in the sample papers: Paper 1, question 3 · Paper 2, question 3 · Paper 3, question 3 · Paper 4, question 3.

B9.4 Understand that each hormone is made by a particular endocrine gland, released into the blood, and carried to the organ or tissue it acts on.

Question 8

In an isolated preparation, a small gland and a distant organ are kept alive in separate chambers, joined only by a tube that carries blood from the gland to the organ. Every nerve to both has been cut. The organ shows no activity while the gland is left alone. Stimulating the gland makes the organ respond about twenty seconds later. When the tube is clamped, the same stimulation produces no response. Which conclusion do these results support?

  • A. Impulses travel from the gland to the organ along nerve fibres running inside the connecting tube.
  • B. The gland releases a chemical into the blood, which the blood carries to the organ, where it acts.
  • C. The organ releases a chemical that passes back down the tube and switches the gland on.
  • D. The organ responds only to a fresh supply of oxygen, and the gland plays no part in the response.
  • E. The gland secretes into a duct that empties its contents onto the surface of the organ.
  • F. The stimulus travels along the tube as a pressure wave in the blood, and the organ responds to it.

Difficulty: ★★★☆☆ Target Time: 90 s Tests: Human physiology

Key Idea (💡): A hormone is defined by three things happening in order: it is made and released by a particular endocrine gland, it enters the blood, and the blood carries it to a distant organ where it produces its effect. An experiment establishes that pattern by removing every other route between the two structures and then showing that the response fails when the blood route is closed and appears when it is open.

Shortcut rehearsed: Cut nerves and a clamped tube together isolate the blood route

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B9.4 - Hormones: a. Know and understand that hormones are released from specific endocrine glands and travel via the blood to...

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: B. The gland releases a chemical into the blood, which the blood carries to the organ, where it acts.

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Read the two controls before the biology. Cut nerves removes every option that needs a nerve, and an organ that is silent until the gland is stimulated removes every option that does not begin at the gland.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Rule out a nervous route.


Every nerve to the gland and to the organ has been cut, so no impulse can pass between them along a nerve. The organ is also inactive while the gland is left alone, even though blood is flowing through the tube the whole time, so whatever produces the response appears only when the gland is stimulated.

2. Show that the blood is the route.


Clamping the tube removes the one remaining connection between the two chambers, and the same stimulation then produces nothing at all. The signal must therefore be something the gland puts into the blood, and it must reach the organ by being carried there in the blood. The delay of about twenty seconds fits transport by flowing blood rather than conduction along a fibre.

3. Name what the substance is.


A substance made in a gland, released into the blood, and carried in the blood to another organ where it produces an effect is a hormone, and a gland that works this way is an endocrine gland. The two results together support that description of the gland and its secretion.

Matches Option B.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. Impulses travel from the gland to the organ along nerve fibres running inside the connecting tube. · ignores a stated control
    Assumes that a signal passing from one structure to another must be a nerve impulse, although a delay of about twenty seconds is far longer than conduction along a fibre would take. Every nerve to both structures has been cut, and the tube carries blood, so there is no fibre along which an impulse could pass from one chamber to the other.
  • C. The organ releases a chemical that passes back down the tube and switches the gland on. · reads the pathway backwards
    Reverses the direction of the effect. The tube carries blood from the gland to the organ, and it is the gland that is stimulated, so a substance travelling from organ to gland cannot be what produces the organ's response.
  • D. The organ responds only to a fresh supply of oxygen, and the gland plays no part in the response. · attributes the result to the blood supply
    Explains the clamp result by loss of oxygen and drops the gland from the account. The organ is already receiving flowing blood while the gland is unstimulated, and does nothing, so oxygen supply on its own does not produce the response.
  • E. The gland secretes into a duct that empties its contents onto the surface of the organ. · confuses endocrine with exocrine secretion
    Describes a gland that pours its secretion down a duct onto a surface. The only connection between the chambers here carries blood, and it is closing that blood route which abolishes the response.
  • F. The stimulus travels along the tube as a pressure wave in the blood, and the organ responds to it. · treats the signal as mechanical rather than chemical
    Takes the clamp result as evidence that any disturbance carried by the tube would serve. A pressure change in a fluid-filled tube reaches the far end almost at once, whereas the organ responds about twenty seconds after the gland is stimulated, which is the time a substance takes to be carried there in flowing blood.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Concluding from the clamp alone that the blood is responsible. The clamp shows only that the connection matters; it is the silent organ before stimulation that shows the gland has to be made active first, and both results are needed before the secretion can be pinned on the gland.

Takeaway (📌):
An endocrine gland signals by putting a chemical into the blood, so the blood supply between gland and target is the whole pathway. Cut the blood link and the message stops, however healthy both structures are.

B9.4 Describe adrenaline's main job: preparing the body for sudden action, the fight or flight response, when it meets danger or stress.

Question 9

A volunteer sits quietly in a laboratory while a cannula samples her blood. Without warning a loud alarm sounds, and the adrenaline concentration in the samples rises sharply over the following minute. She remains seated and makes no movement, and no other hormone concentration changes measurably. Over that minute the investigators also record her heart rate, her blood glucose concentration, the rate of blood flow through the muscles of her legs, and the rate of blood flow through the wall of her gut. Which option gives the direction of change of all four quantities, in that order?

  • A. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow rises, gut flow rises
  • B. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow falls, gut flow rises
  • C. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow falls, gut flow falls
  • D. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow unchanged, gut flow falls
  • E. heart rate rises, glucose falls, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls
  • F. heart rate rises, glucose unchanged, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls
  • G. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls
  • H. heart rate falls, glucose rises, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls

Difficulty: ★★★☆☆ Target Time: 90 s Tests: Human physiology

Key Idea (💡): Adrenaline is released from the adrenal glands when the body meets a sudden threat, and its role is to prepare the body for vigorous physical action before that action begins. It does this in two ways at once: it raises the supply of fuel and the rate at which blood is pumped, and it shares the blood out differently, sending more to the skeletal muscles and less to organs whose work can wait.

Shortcut rehearsed: Adrenaline sends blood towards muscle and away from gut

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B9.4 - Hormones: a. Know and understand that hormones are released from specific endocrine glands and travel via the blood to...

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: G. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Adrenaline raises heart rate and raises blood glucose, so strike every row whose first two entries are not both a rise. Of the rows left, take the only one that moves blood towards the muscles and away from the gut.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Identify the hormone and what it is preparing for.


An unexpected alarm is a sudden threat, and the sharp rise in blood adrenaline is the adrenal glands responding to it. Adrenaline prepares the body for vigorous action, which means getting more oxygen and more fuel to the muscles that would carry that action out, and getting them there before the action begins.

2. Take the heart and the fuel.


Heart rate rises, because a faster heart moves more blood each minute and so delivers more oxygen and glucose to the tissues. Blood glucose concentration rises, because adrenaline makes the liver break stored glycogen down into glucose and release it. Neither change can be put down to movement, since she stays seated, nor to another hormone, since none of the others changed.

3. Take the two blood flows.


Preparing the muscles means sharing the blood out differently, not raising every flow alike. Adrenaline widens the vessels supplying skeletal muscle and narrows those supplying the gut, so flow through the leg muscles rises while flow through the gut wall falls. The response is made in advance of the action, so the muscle vessels widen even though she has not yet moved.

The four directions are therefore rise, rise, rise, fall.

Matches Option G.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow rises, gut flow rises · misses the redistribution
    Gets the heart, the glucose and the muscle right, then treats adrenaline as raising every blood flow at once. The extra flow to the muscles is obtained by actively narrowing the vessels supplying the gut, so gut flow falls rather than rising.
  • B. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow falls, gut flow rises · reverses the redistribution
    Sends more blood to the gut and less to the muscles, which is the pattern of rest and digestion. Adrenaline does the opposite: digestion is postponed so that the muscles can be supplied.
  • C. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow falls, gut flow falls · treats adrenaline as narrowing every vessel
    Takes adrenaline to be a narrowing agent everywhere, so both flows fall. It does narrow the vessels of the gut and the skin, but it widens those supplying skeletal muscle, and a whole body narrowing would starve the very muscles the response is preparing.
  • D. heart rate rises, glucose rises, muscle flow unchanged, gut flow falls · waits for the movement before the blood shifts
    Holds the muscle flow steady on the grounds that she never stands up, so nothing is demanded of her legs. The point of the response is that it comes first: the vessels widen on the alarm so that the muscles are already supplied if the action follows.
  • E. heart rate rises, glucose falls, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls · confuses adrenaline with the hormone that clears glucose
    Takes blood glucose to fall, which is the action of the hormone that moves glucose out of the blood into store. Adrenaline works the other way, releasing glucose from liver glycogen, so glucose rises.
  • F. heart rate rises, glucose unchanged, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls · takes adrenaline to act on the circulation only
    Treats adrenaline as a hormone of the heart and vessels alone, leaving the fuel supply untouched while she sits still. It also acts on the liver, converting stored glycogen to glucose, so the concentration in the blood rises before any movement calls on it.
  • H. heart rate falls, glucose rises, muscle flow rises, gut flow falls · takes adrenaline to slow the heart
    Attributes a falling heart rate to adrenaline, which is the resting state rather than the response to a fright. The other three directions are right, so only the first entry is wrong.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Reasoning that because she never moves, the blood flow to her leg muscles has no reason to change. The adrenaline response is anticipatory: it prepares the muscles for action that may never happen, which is why the flows shift on the sound of the alarm rather than on the first step taken.

Takeaway (📌):
Adrenaline both raises supply and redirects it. Heart rate and blood glucose go up together, and blood is diverted towards the muscles and away from organs like the gut, so muscle flow rises while gut flow falls.

B10 Ecology

B10.3 Work out how many organisms of one species there are in a given area from the counts in a sample of it, scaling up from the area you sampled to the whole.

Question 10

A heath of area 1.6 hectares is surveyed for bell heather. Three quarters of it is dry sandy ground and the remainder is wet bog. Five quadrats of side 2 m, placed at random on the dry ground, hold 100 plants between them; ten quadrats of side 1 m, placed at random on the bog, hold 20. One hectare is 10000 m2. Assuming an even spread within each zone, estimate the number of plants on the heath.

  • A. 44000 plants
  • B. 56000 plants
  • C. 60000 plants
  • D. 64000 plants
  • E. 68000 plants
  • F. 248000 plants

Difficulty: ★★★☆☆ Target Time: 90 s Tests: Ecology

Key Idea (💡): A quadrat survey gives a density, and that density comes from the ground the quadrats actually covered, which is the number of quadrats multiplied by the area of one of them. A habitat built of zones with different densities has to be handled zone by zone: each density is multiplied by the area of the zone it was measured in, and the separate estimates are added to give the number in the whole habitat.

Shortcut rehearsed: One density per zone, each multiplied by the area of its own zone

ESAT specification (UAT-UK): B10.3 - Biodiversity: a. Know and understand how quadrats and belt transects are used to investigate the distribution and...

Reveal the answer & worked solution: commit to an option first

Correct Answer: E. 68000 plants

Fastest Approach (🚀):
Get the two densities in your head first, 100÷20=5 and 20÷10=2, and split 16000 m2 into 12000 and 4000; the whole question is then 5×12+2×4 in thousands.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:

1. Work out how much ground each set of quadrats searched, and the density it gives.


On the dry ground each quadrat is a square of side 2 m, so it covers 4 m2 and the five together searched 20 m2. They held 100 plants, so the dry ground carries 100÷20=5 plants m−2. On the bog each quadrat covers 1 m2 and the ten together searched 10 m2, holding 20 plants, so the bog carries 20÷10=2 plants m−2. A density has to come from the ground covered, not from the number of quadrats.

2. Put the two zones into square metres.


The heath covers 1.6×10000=16000 m2. Three quarters of that is dry sandy ground, 12000 m2, and the remaining quarter is bog, 4000 m2.

3. Scale each zone on its own density and add.


Dry ground: 12000×5=60000 plants. Bog: 4000×2=8000 plants. Heath: 60000+8000=68000 plants. Across the whole 16000 m2 that is 68000÷16000=4.25 plants m−2.

Sanity check: 4.25 plants m−2 for the heath as a whole falls between the 2 plants m−2 measured on the bog and the 5 plants m−2 measured on the dry ground, and nearer the dry figure, which covers three quarters of the ground.

Matches Option E.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):

  • A. 44000 plants · Densities attached to the wrong zones
    Puts the bog's 2 plants m−2 on the dry ground and the dry ground's 5 plants m−2 on the bog: 12000×2=24000 and 4000×5=20000, giving 44000. The larger quadrats, and the count of 100, were on the dry ground.
  • B. 56000 plants · Densities averaged rather than weighted by area
    Takes the mean of the two densities, (5+2)÷2=3.5 plants m−2, and spreads it over the heath: 16000×3.5=56000. A plain mean would be right only if the two zones covered equal areas, and the dry ground covers three times the bog.
  • C. 60000 plants · Second zone left out
    Stops after the dry ground: 12000×5=60000. The bog is part of the heath and holds bell heather at 2 plants m−2 over 4000 m2, which is a further 8000 plants.
  • D. 64000 plants · Samples pooled instead of each zone scaled on its own
    Adds the counts and the searched areas before dividing: 120÷30=4 plants m−2, then 16000×4=64000. That weights the zones by the ground searched in each rather than by the ground each occupies on the heath.
  • F. 248000 plants · Divided by the number of quadrats rather than the ground they covered
    Treats every quadrat as one unit of area: 100÷5=20 and 20÷10=2, then 12000×20=240000 plus 4000×2=8000, giving 248000. Each dry quadrat covered 4 m2, so the five covered 20 m2, not 5.

Common Mistake (⚠️):
Pooling the two samples as though they were one: 120 plants in 30 m2 of searched ground gives 4 plants m−2 and 64000 for the heath. A pooled figure weights the two zones by how much ground was searched in each, which was two thirds dry, instead of by how much of the heath each covers, which is three quarters dry.

Takeaway (📌):
Density before area, and one zone at a time. Divide each count by the ground its own quadrats covered, multiply each density by the area of its own zone, then add.

Where to go next

For individual preparation. These questions are free for a candidate working on their own. They are not licensed for a school, college or tutoring provider to print and run with a class, to republish or resell, or to fold into a course sold by another provider. A school sitting a timed mock with a class needs a paper written for its own candidates and used nowhere else: a commissioned pack, which comes with mark schemes and a syllabus reference.

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